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for those of us familiar with Craig's approach, this was repetitive. The final answers about shifting the allocation to be more conservative in the years approaching and immediately following retirement makes little sense to me. If the variable is the duration of the portfolio, then if a 70 y/o and 60 y/o are of equivalent health, then the 60 y/o retiree would have to be more conservative for 10 years longer than the 70 y/o. Sequence risk would seem to affect the duration of a portfolio 100% of the time.